Top 100 Current Affairs 2025 Questions and Answers

Are you an aspirant facing the challenge of mastering Current Affairs for competitive exams like UPSC, SSC, Banking, Railway, and State PSCs? Knowing which news is relevant—and which sources to trust—is the hardest part of preparation.

That is why we guarantee the reliability of this resource. We have compiled the definitive list of the Top 100 most important Current Affairs Questions and Answers for 2025 to give you the ultimate edge.

By: Priyanka Deshmukh
Last updated: February 15, 2026

Top 100 Current Affairs 2025 Questions and Answers

This essential collection focuses only on recent events from January 2025 to December 2025. Every single question is rigorously sourced from trusted government platforms, including the Press Information Bureau (PIB), News On Air, and DD News, and cross-verified using leading national publications such as The Hindu and The Indian Express.

Crucially, every answer includes a brief explanation to help you understand the context better, covering all core topics like Science, Economy, Defence, and World Events. Stop worrying about unreliable data—start practicing with the best-sourced questions right now!

National and Political Affairs

This section covers government schemes, important national projects, geography related to India, and key political developments.

1. The Siliguri Corridor, also known as the "Chicken Neck," connects which two parts of India?

  1. Northern India and Central India
  2. Eastern India and Western India
  3. Northeastern India and the rest of India
  4. Southern India and Western India
Answer: C) Northeastern India and the rest of India
The Siliguri Corridor is a narrow stretch of land located in the Indian state of West Bengal. It is also known as the “Chicken Neck” because of its narrow and strategic shape. The corridor connects mainland India with its northeastern states such as Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, and Sikkim. The length of the Siliguri Corridor is about 200 km, and its width varies between 20 to 22 kilometers at its narrowest point. The corridor lies between Nepal to the west and Bangladesh to the east, with Bhutan to the north. The Siliguri Corridor is of great strategic importance for India’s security and connectivity.

2. Where is India's first submarine tourism facility set to be introduced?

  1. Kochi, Kerala
  2. Port Blair, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  3. Dwarka, Gujarat
  4. Goa
Answer: C) Dwarka, Gujarat
In December 2023, the Government of Gujarat announced its plan to introduce India’s first submarine-based underwater tourism facility in Dwarka. The initiative is a collaboration between the Gujarat government and Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) under a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU). The tourism facility is designed for visitors to dive up to 100 meters below the sea surface using a submarine to observe the underwater marine life around Bet Dwarka, a small island off the coast of Dwarka. One of the key attractions of this initiative is the chance to explore the marine area believed to encompass a submerged city associated with Lord Krishna, adding mythological significance to the venture. It will boost tourism, attract investment, and enhance employment opportunities around Dwarka—a city already renowned for its religious significance and the Dwarkadhish Temple.

3. What is the primary purpose of the recently launched Ayush Suraksha Portal?

  1. To promote Ayurvedic tourism in India
  2. To monitor and act on misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions in the Ayush sector
  3. To provide online consultations with Ayush practitioners
  4. To distribute free Ayush medicines to rural areas
Answer: B) To monitor and act on misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions in the Ayush sector
The Ayush Suraksha Portal was launched by the Ministry of Ayush on May 30, 2025, at Ayush Bhawan in New Delhi, to bolster drug safety and consumer protection within the Ayush ecosystem. The Portal allows citizens, healthcare professionals, and regulatory authorities to report misleading advertisements (MAs) and adverse drug reactions (ADRs) related to Ayush products, such as Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani, and Homoeopathy. It was developed with technical support from the Central Council for Research in Siddha (CCRS) and is aligned with the National Pharmacovigilance Program, enabling coordinated pharmacovigilance efforts. The portal integrates multiple regulatory bodies—including CDSCO-Ayush, Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, CCPA, NCISM, NCH, PCI, FSSAI, and State Licensing Authorities—to ensure unified response and enforcement action. The portal features a real-time monitoring system and a publicly accessible dashboard, empowering users to track the status of their complaints, thereby enhancing transparency and accountability.

4. Which project is responsible for the development and rejuvenation of Inland Waterways Transport on River Ganga (National Waterways 1)?

  1. Bharat Mala Project
  2. Sagar Mala
  3. Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP)
  4. Sagarmala
Answer: C) Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP)
The Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP) is a major initiative launched by the Government of India to develop the National Waterway-1 (NW-1) on the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system between Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh and Haldia in West Bengal. The project was formally launched in 2015 and is being implemented by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. The primary objective of JMVP is to promote inland water transport (IWT) as a cost-effective, eco-friendly, and efficient mode of transport for cargo and passengers. The project is being implemented with technical and financial assistance from the World Bank. JMVP aims to develop navigational infrastructure, including multimodal terminals, jetties, river information systems, channel marking, and vessel repair facilities. JMVP helps in transporting bulk goods like coal, fly ash, cement, fertilizers, food grains, and stone chips, reducing pressure on road and rail networks. It provides a boost to the government’s Make in India and Sagarmala initiatives by improving logistics efficiency and trade connectivity.

5. Which online platform has been launched by the Ministry to facilitate farmers with market access and crop sale?

  1. e-Krishi Samvad
  2. e-NAM (National Agriculture Market)
  3. e-Kisan Portal
  4. Digital Krishi Setu
Answer: B) e-NAM (National Agriculture Market)
The National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) is India’s largest digital platform for agricultural trade. e-NAM digitally connects agricultural markets across India. The platform helps farmers get competitive prices and reduces dependence on middlemen. The Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI) is responsible for setting tradable parameters for commodities on e-NAM. Nine new commodities have been added to the e-NAM platform. The nine newly added commodities are: Green Tea, Tea, Ashwagandha Dry Roots, Mustard Oil, Lavender Oil, Mentha Oil, Virgin Olive Oil, Lavender Dried Flower and Broken Rice. The expansion aims to provide wider market access, fair pricing, and transparency to farmers. The decision was taken by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.

Also Read: Daily Current Affairs 2026 for Competitive Exams

6. What is the primary objective of the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj?

  1. To assess and rank urban municipalities based on economic performance.
  2. To monitor the performance of state governments in implementing central schemes.
  3. To provide financial assistance to Panchayats without performance assessment.
  4. To evaluate and enhance the performance of Gram Panchayats across nine themes aligned with the Localization of Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs).
Answer: D) To evaluate and enhance the performance of Gram Panchayats across nine themes aligned with the Localization of Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs).
The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 was launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj to evaluate and improve the performance of Gram Panchayats. The main goal is to evaluate and enhance the performance of Gram Panchayats across nine themes aligned with the Localization of Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs). Nine Themes: The evaluation themes include poverty-free villages, healthy villages, child-friendly villages, water-sufficient villages, clean and green villages, self-sufficient infrastructure, socially just villages, women-friendly governance, and transparent governance. This index provides a framework to measure how effectively Panchayats are contributing to grassroots-level governance, service delivery, and sustainable development. By ranking and monitoring Panchayats, the initiative ensures accountability, better planning, and improved rural development outcomes. The index connects the global Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) with local governance, ensuring that villages play a role in achieving India’s 2030 Agenda. It ensures greater accountability and transparency in the functioning of Panchayats.

7. What is the name of India's longest cable-stayed bridge inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

  1. Dwarka Setu
  2. Sudarshan Setu
  3. Beyt Dwarka Bridge
  4. Okha Signature Bridge
Answer: B) Sudarshan Setu
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated Sudarshan Setu, India’s longest cable-stayed bridge, in Gujarat. The bridge connects Okha (mainland Gujarat) with Beyt Dwarka Island, improving connectivity for pilgrims and residents. The name Sudarshan Setu, meaning bridge of Sudarshan Chakra, was given to highlight its cultural significance, as Beyt Dwarka is associated with Lord Krishna. The bridge is not only an engineering marvel but also holds architectural and spiritual importance. The bridge is decorated with inscriptions of Bhagavad Gita shlokas and carvings of Lord Krishna, merging spirituality with modern infrastructure. Provides all-weather connectivity to pilgrims visiting the Dwarkadhish Temple on Beyt Dwarka. The bridge is also expected to strengthen local economic activities, particularly trade, tourism, and fisheries.

8. What is the main objective of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana?

  1. Provide crop insurance to farmers
  2. Promote organic farming
  3. Develop modern food processing infrastructure
  4. Give free seeds to farmers
Answer: C) Develop modern food processing infrastructure
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY) is a central sector scheme launched by the Government of India in 2017. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI). The main objective of PMKSY is to modernize infrastructure for agro-processing clusters, reduce wastage of agricultural produce, and increase farmers income. It aims to create modern food processing infrastructure, including cold chains, mega food parks, and agro-processing clusters. The scheme focuses on efficient supply chain management from farm to retail outlets. The scheme provides support for Mega Food Parks, Cold Chain, Integrated Cold Storage, Food Processing Units, and Agro-Processing Clusters. PMKSY is aligned with the Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan initiatives by supporting domestic food processing.

9. Minimum Support Price (MSP) is recommended by Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and approved by which body?

  1. Parliament of India
  2. Ministry of Finance
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
Answer: D) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is the price fixed by the Government of India at which it purchases crops from farmers. MSP is announced to protect farmers from sharp falls in market prices. The government announces MSP before the sowing season to help farmers plan their crops. MSP is declared by the Union Government on the recommendation of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) gives final approval to MSP. Minimum Support Price (MSP) is announced for 23 crops in India. These crops include 7 cereals, 5 pulses, 7 oilseeds, and 4 commercial crops. The government procures crops mainly through agencies such as Food Corporation of India (FCI) and NAFED.

10. The primary function of the Finance Commission is to:

  1. Prepare the Union Budget
  2. Regulate financial markets
  3. Recommend principles of tax revenue distribution between Centre and States
  4. Audit government expenditure
Answer: C) Recommend principles of tax revenue distribution between Centre and States
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body in India.The Finance Commission is a constitutional body in India. It is constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. The Finance Commission is appointed by the President of India. It is constituted every five years or earlier if required. The main function of the Finance Commission is to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States. It recommends how tax revenues should be shared between the Union and the States. It also suggests the distribution of taxes among States. The Finance Commission recommends grants-in-aid to States from the Consolidated Fund of India. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are advisory in nature.

11. On which river is the Shahpurkandi Dam built under the Indus Waters Treaty?

  1. Ravi River
  2. Beas River
  3. Chenab River
  4. Jhelum River
Answer: A) Ravi River
The Shahpurkandi Dam project is constructed on the Ravi River, located in the Pathankot district of Punjab. It was built under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960) to utilize India’s share of river water and prevent wastage into Pakistan. The Ravi River is one of the three eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) allocated to India under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960 between India and Pakistan. The project will help in controlling floods, improving irrigation efficiency, and enhancing agricultural productivity in Punjab and parts of Jammu & Kashmir. The Ravi River originates from the Bara Bhangal region near the Rohtang Pass in the Himalayas of Himachal Pradesh, India.

Also Read: Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2026 for Competitive Exams

Economy, Banking, and Finance

This section covers key economic indicators, banking decisions, port development, and government e-procurement platforms.

12. Which Indian port recently achieved the milestone of handling 10 million TEUs of cargo?

  1. Mundra Port
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA)
  3. Kandla Port
  4. Chennai Port
Answer: B) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA)
The Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA), also known as JNPT/Nhava Sheva Port, recently achieved the significant milestone of handling over 10 million TEUs (Twenty-foot Equivalent Units) in container traffic. Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal publicly celebrated JNPA’s status, describing it as 'among top global ports' and the largest in India to exceed the 10 million TEU threshold. Generating over 10 million TEUs underscores JNPA’s critical role in India’s maritime economy and reflects substantial port infrastructure and expansion efforts. JNPA, located at Navi Mumbai (Maharashtra), is the largest container-handling port in India, contributing significantly to the nation’s EXIM (export-import) trade. JNPA hosts India’s largest container terminal, state-of-the-art facilities, and multiple terminals managed by international operators, ensuring faster cargo handling and world-class services. The port plays a vital role in India’s economy, handling over 50% of containerized cargo among Major Ports, thereby supporting India’s global trade competitiveness.

13. Which three ports in India are being developed as Green Hydrogen Hub Ports to support the manufacturing of green hydrogen and its derivatives?

  1. Kandla, Tuticorin, and Paradip
  2. Mumbai, Chennai, and Kochi
  3. Visakhapatnam, Mangalore, and Haldia
  4. Ennore, Dahej, and Hazira
Answer: A) Kandla, Tuticorin, and Paradip
The Government of India has identified Kandla, Tuticorin, and Paradip as the three major ports to be developed as Green Hydrogen Hub Ports. This is part of India’s strategy to become a global leader in green hydrogen production and export, supporting the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM). These ports will facilitate the manufacturing, storage, and export of green hydrogen and its derivatives like green ammonia and methanol. These ports will act as centers for storage, bunkering, and shipment of green hydrogen and its derivatives, enabling India to participate in the global green fuel trade. The move supports India’s commitment to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2070 and reduce dependence on fossil fuels. Developing hydrogen hubs at ports strengthens India’s role in renewable energy exports and aligns with the government’s plan to make India an energy-secure nation.

14. Which country has India recently surpassed to become the world’s 4th largest economy?

  1. Germany
  2. United Kingdom
  3. Japan
  4. France
Answer: C) Japan
As per the latest data from the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank (2025), India has overtaken Japan to become the world’s 4th largest economy in nominal GDP terms. The U.S., China, and Germany occupy the top three spots. India’s nominal GDP (2025): Over $4.1 trillion. This achievement reflects India’s robust economic growth, strong domestic demand, rising exports, and successful policy reforms under initiatives like “Make in India” and “Digital India”.

15. By how many basis points did the RBI cut the policy repo rate in its June 6, 2025 review?

  1. 25 basis points
  2. 50 basis points
  3. 75 basis points
  4. 100 basis points
Answer: B) 50 basis points
In its June 6, 2025 Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) reduced the repo rate by 50 basis points (0.50%) to boost economic growth amid easing inflation trends. This marks the first major rate cut since 2023, signaling a shift toward a more accommodative monetary stance. Aim: Encourage investment and liquidity in the economy. Inflation (May 2025): Around 4.2%, within the RBI’s comfort zone (2–6%).

16. Which trend was highlighted by the Ministry of Coal based on this May 2025 data?

  1. Decline in captive mine production
  2. Increase in coal imports
  3. Reduction in coal dispatch volumes
  4. Growing contribution of captive/commercial mines to total output
Answer: D) Growing contribution of captive/commercial mines to total output
The Ministry of Coal reported in May 2025 that captive and commercial mines have significantly increased their contribution to India’s overall coal production. This reflects the success of coal sector reforms, allowing private players to operate mines and enhance domestic output. Aim: Reduce dependence on imports and achieve self-sufficiency in coal production.

17. Which three segments were the top contributors to Index of Industrial Production (IIP) growth in April 2025?

  1. Capital Goods, Consumer Durables, Intermediate Goods
  2. Primary, Infrastructure Goods, Mining
  3. Manufacturing, Electricity, Mining
  4. Capital Goods, Primary Goods, Consumer Non-Durables
Answer: A) Capital Goods, Consumer Durables, Intermediate Goods
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data for April 2025 showed robust growth driven by strong performance in Capital Goods, Consumer Durables, and Intermediate Goods. This indicates rising industrial demand and investment in the manufacturing sector. Consumer Durables: Boosted by strong domestic consumption and festival demand.

18. Which sector received the highest share of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity in FY 2024–25?

  1. Computer software & hardware
  2. Services
  3. Manufacturing
  4. Trading
Answer: B) Services
The Services Sector remained the top recipient of FDI inflows during FY 2024–25, followed by computer software & hardware and manufacturing. The sector includes finance, insurance, business services, and telecommunications. Total FDI inflow (FY 2024–25): $71 billion. Services sector share: 16%. Major FDI sources: Singapore, USA, and Mauritius.

19. What is the primary purpose of the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) system?

  1. To rank telecom operators based on financial fraud incidents
  2. To track international money transfers to India
  3. To provide advance actionable intelligence for cyber fraud prevention
  4. To monitor data usage of mobile subscribers
Answer: C) To provide advance actionable intelligence for cyber fraud prevention
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), launched in 2025, is a data-driven platform designed to detect and prevent cyber fraud. It enables banks, payment platforms, and regulators to receive real-time risk alerts about suspicious transactions. Developed by: RBI and National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). Uses AI and machine learning for fraud detection.

20. At its 8th Incorporation Day, Government e-Marketplace (GeM) was recognized as what?

  1. India’s largest retail marketplace
  2. Largest cloud service provider
  3. Biggest logistics portal
  4. World’s largest public e-procurement platform
Answer: D) World’s largest public e-procurement platform
In 2025, on its 8th anniversary, the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) was recognized as the world’s largest public e-procurement platform. GeM enables transparent and efficient government procurement of goods and services from registered vendors. Operated under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

21. Which government initiatives are expected to bolster India's manufacturing sector in 2025-26, as per the RBI report?

  1. Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme and National Manufacturing Mission
  2. Startup India and Digital India
  3. Skill India and Swachh Bharat
  4. Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat
Answer: A) Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme and National Manufacturing Mission
The RBI’s annual report for 2025 highlights that the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme and the National Manufacturing Mission are major drivers of India’s manufacturing growth. These initiatives promote domestic production, reduce import dependence, and enhance global competitiveness. PLI covers 14 key sectors, including electronics, pharmaceuticals, and automotive. National Manufacturing Mission aims to raise manufacturing share to 25% of GDP by 2030. Expected to create over 1 crore jobs in coming years.

22. According to the RBI's annual report, what is the projected real GDP growth rate for India in the fiscal year 2025-26?

  1. 5.5%
  2. 6.0%
  3. 6.5%
  4. 7.0%
Answer: C) 6.5%
The RBI’s Annual Report (May 2025) projects India’s real GDP growth at 6.5% for FY 2025–26, supported by strong domestic demand, investment, and a stable macroeconomic environment. Key growth drivers: Infrastructure spending, manufacturing, and exports. Inflation expected to average around 4.5% in FY 2025–26.

23. What external risks does the RBI identify that could impact India's economic growth outlook?

  1. Stable global trade and geopolitical harmony
  2. Global financial market volatility, geopolitical tensions, and trade protectionism
  3. Increased foreign investments and technological advancements
  4. Strengthening global supply chains and commodity price stability
Answer: B) Global financial market volatility, geopolitical tensions, and trade protectionism
The RBI cautioned that external headwinds like financial market fluctuations, geopolitical conflicts (particularly in Europe and West Asia), and global trade restrictions could pose risks to India’s growth momentum. Global oil prices and currency volatility remain major concerns. RBI stresses maintaining adequate forex reserves (over $640 billion as of mid-2025). Domestic resilience and policy flexibility are key to mitigating these risks.

24. Which bank has launched Aadhaar-based face authentication for digital transactions?

  1. SBI YONO
  2. India Post Payments Bank
  3. State Bank of India
  4. Paytm Payment Bank
Answer: B) India Post Payments Bank
In 2025, the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) introduced Aadhaar-based face authentication for secure and seamless digital transactions. This innovation enhances security and accessibility, especially for senior citizens and rural users who face challenges with OTP or fingerprint authentication. Technology support: Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI). Enables services like fund transfer, balance inquiry, and bill payments.

Science, Technology, and Space

This section includes questions on ISRO missions, new technology developments, health/medical research, and meteorological advances.

25. What is the spatial resolution of the newly launched Bharat Forecasting System (BFS), making it the highest globally?

  1. 12 km
  2. 10 km
  3. 6 km
  4. 4 km
Answer: C) 6 km
The Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) has been launched by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) to provide high-resolution weather forecasts across India. The BFS has a spatial resolution of 6 km, which is currently the highest in the world. A higher resolution means the system can predict weather events with greater accuracy and detail, especially at the local and regional level. With such high resolution, the BFS can predict localized weather events like heavy rainfall, thunderstorms, cyclones, and heatwaves more precisely. This will significantly help in early warning systems, disaster management, agriculture planning, and public safety. The BFS is expected to integrate with artificial intelligence, machine learning, and big data analytics for even better predictive accuracy.

26. Which country is assisting India with astronaut training for Gaganyaan?

  1. United States
  2. Russia
  3. France
  4. Japan
Answer: B) Russia
For the Gaganyaan Mission, India's first human spaceflight programme, Russia is assisting India with astronaut training. Four Indian Air Force pilots were selected as astronaut candidates and sent to the Gagarin Cosmonaut Training Center in Moscow. The training included: Learning spaceflight theory, Survival training in different environments, Simulator-based practice, Physical and psychological preparation for space travel. Russia was chosen due to its long-standing expertise in human spaceflight, starting from Yuri Gagarin's mission in 1961. This Indo-Russian cooperation is a crucial step for ISRO in preparing its astronauts for India's historic manned mission. India will become the fourth country after Russia, the USA, and China to send humans into space on its own.

27. Which Indian company has recently become the first to develop hydrogen transport pipes capable of handling 100% pure gaseous hydrogen?

  1. JSW Steel
  2. Tata Steel
  3. SAIL
  4. Hindalco
Answer: B) Tata Steel
Tata Steel has become the first Indian company to successfully design and develop special steel pipes capable of transporting 100% pure gaseous hydrogen under high pressure (up to 100 bar). These pipes are hydrogen-compliant and meet all technical requirements for safe and efficient hydrogen transport — a key infrastructure need for advancing India’s hydrogen economy. Tata Steel carried out the entire process in-house — from designing the steel to manufacturing the pipes at its plants. This development supports India’s National Hydrogen Mission, which aims to build hydrogen production and transport capabilities to support clean energy goals. Developing pipelines that can safely carry pure hydrogen is essential for building a hydrogen-based energy ecosystem, including industrial use, mobility, and energy storage.

28. What is the primary significance of Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4)?

  1. It is India’s first lunar mission.
  2. It’s the first private astronaut mission to the ISS for India, Poland, and Hungary.
  3. It marked the retirement of the ISS.
  4. It launched the heaviest satellite to date.
Answer: B) It’s the first private astronaut mission to the ISS for India, Poland, and Hungary.
Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) is a commercially organised human spaceflight mission which, in June 2025, carried astronauts from India, Poland, and Hungary to the International Space Station (ISS). This mission marks the first time these three countries have sent astronauts to the ISS via a private mission.

29. What are exosomes, as mentioned in the recent cancer research by INST, Mohali?

  1. Large blood cells involved in oxygen transport
  2. Nano-sized vesicles that carry tumor-derived metabolites
  3. Enzymes that break down cancer cells
  4. Hormones regulating cell growth
Answer: B) Nano-sized vesicles that carry tumor-derived metabolites
In the recent research from INST, Mohali, exosomes are described as nano-sized extracellular vesicles which are released by tumor cells and carry metabolites, proteins, and signaling molecules. These exosomes play a role in tumor progression and metastasis by modifying the microenvironment and influencing distant tissues.

30. What is 'Bharat Gen' recently launched by the Government of India?

  1. A new agricultural subsidy program
  2. A nationwide health insurance scheme
  3. A space exploration mission
  4. An indigenously developed AI-based multimodal Large Language Model (LLM) for Indian languages
Answer: D) An indigenously developed AI-based multimodal Large Language Model (LLM) for Indian languages
Bharat Gen is India’s own AI / Large Language Model (LLM), developed to support multimodal communications (text, speech, etc.) in Indian languages. It reflects the government’s push for indigenous AI capabilities suited to India’s linguistic diversity.

31. What is the significance of personalized gene-editing treatment?

  1. It is the first time a vaccine was developed for a rare disease
  2. It replaces the need for any medical intervention
  3. It demonstrates the potential of personalized gene-editing therapies for treating rare genetic disorders
  4. It is a new method for diagnosing common illnesses
Answer: C) It demonstrates the potential of personalized gene-editing therapies for treating rare genetic disorders
Personalized gene-editing treatment represents a tailored approach to editing a patient’s genome to correct disease-causing mutations. It is especially promising for rare genetic disorders, since such treatments can be customized to a patient’s unique mutation landscape. This shows the growing clinical potential of technologies like CRISPR in precision medicine.

32. What is the Gaganyaan Mission?

  1. India's first lunar mission
  2. India's first interplanetary mission
  3. India's first human spaceflight mission
  4. India's Mars mission
Answer: C) India's first human spaceflight mission
Gaganyaan is India’s national initiative to send human beings into space under the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It aims to place Indian astronauts (called “Vyomanauts”) in a low-Earth orbit and return them safely to Earth.

33. What is the name of the female humanoid robot developed by ISRO for the Gaganyaan test missions?

  1. Vyommitra
  2. Chandrika
  3. Gagandev
  4. Akashini
Answer: A) Vyommitra
Vyommitra is the female humanoid robot developed by ISRO to simulate human responses in space. It will be used in precursor test flights under Gaganyaan to collect data on life support systems, cabin environment, radiation levels, and physiological responses in microgravity.

34. What is the primary cause of Sickle Cell Anaemia?

  1. Deficiency of iron in the blood
  2. Mutation in the gene that codes for haemoglobin
  3. Infection by a virus
  4. Lack of white blood cells
Answer: B) Mutation in the gene that codes for haemoglobin
Sickle Cell Anaemia is caused by a mutation in the β-globin gene (HBB gene) that leads to production of an abnormal form of hemoglobin (HbS). Under low oxygen conditions, RBCs distort into a “sickle” shape, leading to blockage of capillaries, hemolysis, and various complications.

35. What is the name of the newly inaugurated astronomical observatory in Purulia, West Bengal?

  1. Satyendra Nath Bose Astronomical Observatory
  2. Aryabhatta Astronomical Observatory
  3. Vikram Sarabhai Space Observatory
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru Space Centre
Answer: A) Satyendra Nath Bose Astronomical Observatory
The recently inaugurated observatory in Purulia, West Bengal is named the Satyendra Nath Bose Astronomical Observatory. It is intended to promote astronomical observations and research in eastern India.

36. Which Indian research institution has developed a super-fast charging sodium-ion battery that can charge up to 80% in six minutes and lasts over 3,000 charge cycles?

  1. Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru
  2. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), Bengaluru
  4. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), New Delhi
Answer: C) Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), Bengaluru
The JNCASR, Bengaluru has developed a sodium-ion battery that can reach 80% charge in about 6 minutes and sustain over 3,000 charge–discharge cycles. This is a major advance in battery technology, making sodium-ion alternatives more competitive for energy storage applications.

37. Siddha medicine is part of which ministry in India?

  1. Ministry of Health
  2. Ministry of AYUSH
  3. Ministry of Science and Technology
  4. Ministry of Culture
Answer: B) Ministry of AYUSH
Siddha medicine is one of the traditional systems of medicine recognized by the Indian government under the Ministry of AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy).

Also Read: 100 General Knowledge Questions and Answers

Defence, Security, and Strategic Affairs

This section covers military exercises, indigenous defense technology, and strategic appointments.

38. What is the primary objective of Operation Sindhu?

  1. To conduct military exercises near Iran
  2. To provide humanitarian aid to neighbouring countries
  3. To establish Indian military bases overseas
  4. To evacuate Indian nationals from conflict zones in Iran and Israel
Answer: D) To evacuate Indian nationals from conflict zones in Iran and Israel
Operation Sindhu was an emergency evacuation mission launched by the Government of India on June 18, 2025, in response to escalating hostilities between Israel and Iran. The primary aim was to ensure the safe return of Indian nationals stranded in the conflict-affected areas of Iran. According to an official briefing, 3,426 Indian nationals were evacuated from Iran, while 818 were safely brought back from Israel. The operation included 14 flights from Iran via routes such as Mashhad, Yerevan, and Ashgabat. For Israel, evacuations took place via Jordan and Egypt due to closed airspace. The operation demonstrated India’s swift diplomatic coordination, involving the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), Indian embassies in Tehran and Yerevan, and diplomatic support from countries like Iran, Armenia, Jordan, and Egypt.

39. The Dharma Guardian exercise is a joint military exercise between which two countries?

  1. India and USA
  2. India and Japan
  3. India and Russia
  4. India and France
Answer: B) India and Japan
Exercise Dharma Guardian is a joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Japanese Ground Self-Defense Force (JGSDF). The exercise focuses on enhancing bilateral defence cooperation, improving interoperability, and sharing best practices in counter-terrorism and joint military operations. The exercise is held annually to improve defence ties between the two countries. It supports peace, stability, and security in the Indo-Pacific region.

40. Which organization is leading the design and development of the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA)?

  1. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
  2. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  3. Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA)
  4. Indian Air Force (IAF)
Answer: C) Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA)
The Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) is an indigenous fighter jet programme of India.The Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) is being designed and developed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA). ADA is a government agency under the Ministry of Defence and works closely with DRDO, HAL, and the Indian Air Force. AMCA is India’s indigenous fifth-generation stealth fighter aircraft programme. It will have features like stealth design, advanced avionics, and supercruise capability. The aircraft will strengthen India’s self-reliance in defence under Atmanirbhar Bharat.

41. What significant policy shift has been introduced in the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) project's execution model?

  1. Exclusive development by HAL
  2. Inclusion of private sector participation alongside HAL
  3. Collaboration with foreign aerospace companies
  4. Development solely by the Indian Air Force
Answer: B) Inclusion of private sector participation alongside HAL
A major policy shift in the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) project is the inclusion of private sector companies along with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Earlier, such complex fighter aircraft projects were mainly handled by public sector units. The new model encourages public–private partnership in defence production. Private companies will contribute advanced technology, innovation, and manufacturing capacity. HAL will continue to play a major role in aircraft production and integration. It aims to reduce delays and improve the quality of defence projects. It will also create skilled jobs and boost indigenous defence capabilities.

42. What is the name of the first indigenously-developed 1500 HP engine handed over to the Indian Army for tanks?

  1. Shakti-1500
  2. Arjun Power-1500
  3. Bharat-Engine
  4. Vikas-1500
Answer: A) Shakti-1500
Shakti-1500 is the first indigenously developed 1500 horsepower (HP) engine that has been handed over to the Indian Army for use in tanks. The engine has been developed to meet the high power and performance requirements of modern battle tanks and supports India’s goal of self-reliance in defence technology. It supports tank operations in deserts, plains, and high-temperature conditions. The engine reduces India’s dependence on imported defence equipment. It is an important milestone in India’s armoured vehicle programme.

43. Where has the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) inaugurated the Quantum Technology Research Centre (QTRC) in May 2025?

  1. Bengaluru
  2. Pune
  3. Hyderabad
  4. Metcalfe House, Delhi
Answer: D) Metcalfe House, Delhi
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) inaugurated the Quantum Technology Research Centre (QTRC) at Metcalfe House in Delhi in May 2025. The centre has been established to strengthen India’s research and development capabilities in quantum technologies for defence and strategic applications. The centre focuses on research in quantum computing, quantum communication, and quantum sensing. Quantum technology is important for secure communication and next-generation defence systems.

44. What is the name of the newly inducted stitched sail ship based on ancient Indian maritime heritage by the Indian Navy?

  1. INSV Vikrant
  2. INSV Kaundinya
  3. INSV Ashoka
  4. INSV Samudra
Answer: B) INSV Kaundinya
INSV Kaundinya is the newly inducted stitched sail ship of the Indian Navy, designed on the basis of ancient Indian maritime heritage. It uses traditional stitched shipbuilding techniques instead of metal nails. The design is inspired by ancient Indian texts and historical depictions. INSV Kaundinya reflects India’s rich seafaring and trading traditions. It highlights India’s indigenous knowledge of ship construction.

45. Which DRDO laboratory has developed the indigenous nanoporous multilayered polymeric membrane for high-pressure seawater desalination?

  1. Defence Institute of Advanced Technology (DIAT), Pune
  2. Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL), Kochi
  3. Defence Materials & Stores Research and Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur
  4. Centre for Fire, Explosive and Environment Safety (CFEES), Delhi
Answer: C) Defence Materials & Stores Research and Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur
The Defence Materials & Stores Research and Development Establishment (DMSRDE), Kanpur, a laboratory under DRDO, has developed an indigenous nanoporous multilayered polymeric membrane. This membrane is designed for high-pressure seawater desalination and is useful for producing fresh water in naval ships and coastal defence installations. Indigenous development reduces dependence on imported desalination technologies. It is important for water security during long naval operations.

46. What is the name of the multinational air combat exercise in which the Indian Air Force participated in the UAE in 2025?

  1. Exercise Desert Flag-10
  2. Exercise Vayu Shakti
  3. Exercise Red Flag
  4. Exercise Blue Skies
Answer: A) Exercise Desert Flag-10
Exercise Desert Flag-10 is a multinational air combat exercise held in the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in 2025. The Indian Air Force (IAF) participated to enhance operational readiness and to gain experience in complex air combat scenarios alongside friendly foreign air forces. The exercise includes day and night flying operations. The exercise focuses on air combat operations and joint missions. It helps the IAF validate its operational capabilities in a realistic environment.

47. Which Indian Navy ship arrived at Nacala Port, Mozambique, in April 2025 as part of Mission SAGAR?

  1. INS Trikand
  2. INS Sumitra
  3. INS Sunayna
  4. INS Tarkash
Answer: C) INS Sunayna
INS Sunayna, a ship of the Indian Navy, arrived at Nacala Port in Mozambique in April 2025 as part of Mission SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region). The visit aimed to strengthen maritime cooperation and enhance India’s role as a net security provider in the Indian Ocean Region. INS Sunayna’s visit aimed to strengthen India–Mozambique relations. The mission reflects India’s commitment to the Indian Ocean Region. Such visits improve regional stability and mutual trust.

48. Which branches of the Indian Armed Forces participated in Exercise Prachand Prahar?

  1. Only the Indian Army
  2. Army and Navy
  3. Army and Air Force
  4. Army, Navy, and Air Force
Answer: D) Army, Navy, and Air Force
Exercise Prachand Prahar is a tri-service military exercise involving the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force. The exercise focused on joint planning and execution of operations. It aimed to enhance coordination and interoperability among the three forces. The exercise tested integrated combat capabilities in realistic scenarios. Such exercises strengthen India’s overall military preparedness.

Environment, Ecology, and Agriculture

This section focuses on environmental issues, agriculture schemes, and biodiversity/conservation efforts.

49. When the Polar Vortex weakens or splits, it can cause:

  1. Heavy rainfall in tropical regions
  2. Heat waves in Europe
  3. Sudden cold waves in mid-latitude regions
  4. Hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean
Answer: C) Sudden cold waves in mid-latitude regions
The polar vortex is a large area of very cold air that normally stays around the North Pole. It is held in place by strong winds that circulate from west to east. When the polar vortex is strong, cold air remains trapped near the polar region. Sometimes, due to changes in atmospheric conditions, the polar vortex weakens or splits. When this happens, the strong winds that hold the cold air weaken. As a result, cold Arctic air moves southward toward lower latitudes. These lower latitudes are called mid-latitude regions, such as parts of North America, Europe, and Asia. The sudden movement of cold air causes sharp drops in temperature. Such cold waves can cause snowstorms, frost, icy conditions, and extreme winter weather.

50. Which of the following tiger reserves was notified as the 58th in India under the Project Tiger scheme?

  1. Ratapani Tiger Reserve
  2. Madhav National Park
  3. Sariska Tiger Reserve
  4. Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
Answer: B) Madhav National Park
In 2025, Madhav National Park in Madhya Pradesh was officially notified as India’s 58th Tiger Reserve under the Project Tiger initiative. Madhav National Park is located in Shivpuri district, Madhya Pradesh. The park is located in the Vindhyan Hills region, characterized by mixed dry deciduous forests, grasslands, and wetlands. Two prominent lakes — Sakhya Sagar Lake and Madhav Sagar Lake — are located inside the park and serve as vital water sources for wildlife. Flora - khair, salai, kardhai, tendu, palash, and dhak. Fauna - tigers, leopards, chital, sambar, nilgai, blackbuck, sloth bears, jackals, and wild boars.

51. In which Indian state is the newly declared 57th Tiger Reserve, Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary, located?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Chhattisgarh
Answer: B) Madhya Pradesh
The Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Raisen and Sehore districts of Madhya Pradesh, was declared India’s 57th Tiger Reserve. The sanctuary lies close to the state capital Bhopal. The sanctuary is part of the Vindhya hill ranges and is known for its undulating terrain, rocky hills, plateaus, valleys, and dense forests. The Barna River, a tributary of the Narmada River, flows through the sanctuary, providing an essential water source for wildlife. Ratapani’s forest area serves as a vital corridor connecting Satpura Tiger Reserve in the south and Panna Tiger Reserve in the northeast, allowing tiger movement across central India.

52. Which state holds the largest share of India's mangrove forests?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Odisha
  3. West Bengal
  4. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: C) West Bengal
According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, West Bengal accounts for the largest area of mangrove forests in India — primarily due to the Sundarbans, the world’s largest mangrove delta. The state contributes nearly 42% of India’s total mangrove cover. The Sundarbans Mangrove Forest is the largest mangrove forest in the world and a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The Sundarbans are formed at the confluence of the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers, creating an extensive delta with numerous islands, tidal creeks, and estuaries. The region is home to the Royal Bengal Tiger, saltwater crocodiles, Gangetic dolphins, fishing cats, estuarine monitor lizards, and numerous bird species.

53. What is the primary objective of the GCF-ECRICC project launched by the Government of India?

  1. To promote inland fisheries in northern India
  2. To develop urban infrastructure in coastal cities
  3. To establish marine national parks across all coastal states
  4. To enhance climate resilience in coastal communities through mangrove restoration
Answer: D) To enhance climate resilience in coastal communities through mangrove restoration
GCF-ECRICC stands for Green Climate Fund – Enhancing Climate Resilience of India’s Coastal Communities. The project is launched by the Government of India with support from the Green Climate Fund (GCF). The main objective of the project is to protect coastal communities from climate change impacts. Coastal areas are highly vulnerable to cyclones, storm surges, sea-level rise, and coastal erosion. Mangroves act as natural barriers against strong winds and sea waves. Restoring mangroves helps reduce damage from cyclones and flooding. Mangroves also help in stabilising coastlines and preventing erosion. The project focuses on ecosystem-based adaptation, which means using nature to fight climate risks. The project also helps in carbon sequestration, as mangroves absorb large amounts of carbon dioxide.

54. Where is Iceberg A23a currently located?

  1. Off the coast of South Georgia Island in the South Atlantic Ocean
  2. Near the coast of Greenland
  3. Adjacent to the Antarctic Peninsula
  4. In the Arctic Ocean
Answer: A) Off the coast of South Georgia Island in the South Atlantic Ocean
Iceberg A23a is one of the largest icebergs in the world. It originally broke away from Antarctica many years ago. For a long time, it remained grounded on the seabed near Antarctica. Due to changes in ocean currents and winds, the iceberg started drifting. Over time, it moved northward from Antarctica into the Southern Ocean. Recently, Iceberg A23a has been observed off the coast of South Georgia Island. South Georgia Island is located in the South Atlantic Ocean. Large icebergs like A23a can affect marine ecosystems and shipping routes.

55. Where is India's first white tiger breeding centre being established?

  1. Nandankanan, Odisha
  2. Bannerghatta, Karnataka
  3. Govindgarh, Madhya Pradesh
  4. Alipore, West Bengal
Answer: C) Govindgarh, Madhya Pradesh
India is establishing its first white tiger breeding centre at Govindgarh in Madhya Pradesh. White tigers are a rare genetic variant of Bengal tigers. They are not a separate species but have a recessive gene that causes white coloration. The main aim of the breeding centre is to conserve and protect white tigers. The centre will help in scientific breeding and proper management of white tigers. Madhya Pradesh is known as the “Tiger State of India” because it has the highest number of tigers.

56. Which state recorded the highest number of bird species during the Great Backyard Bird Count (GBBC) 2025 in India?

  1. Kerala
  2. Uttarakhand
  3. West Bengal
  4. Assam
Answer: C) West Bengal
The Great Backyard Bird Count (GBBC) is a global citizen science event. It is conducted every year to record and monitor bird species. During GBBC 2025, West Bengal recorded the highest number of bird species among all Indian states. West Bengal has diverse habitats, such as wetlands, forests, rivers, coastal areas, and mangroves. The Sundarbans mangrove forest is an important habitat for many resident and migratory birds. The state lies on major migratory bird routes, especially along the eastern flyway. Wetlands like East Kolkata Wetlands support a large variety of bird species.

57. Which river stretch in Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest concentration of dolphins?

  1. Bhind-Pachnada stretch of Chambal River
  2. Kanpur stretch of Ganga River
  3. Allahabad stretch of Yamuna River
  4. Varanasi stretch of Ganga River
Answer: A) Bhind-Pachnada stretch of Chambal River
River dolphins are freshwater mammals and are considered indicators of clean and healthy rivers. In Uttar Pradesh, dolphin population surveys are conducted to understand their distribution and conservation status. The Bhind–Pachnada stretch of the Chambal River recorded the highest concentration of dolphins in the state. This stretch is known for its clean water and low industrial pollution. The Chambal River flows through protected areas, which reduces human disturbance. Activities like heavy fishing, sand mining, and industrial discharge are strictly regulated in this region. The Chambal is also famous for supporting other endangered species like gharial and crocodiles.

58. Which chemical agent, commonly misused for artificial ripening of fruits, is mentioned by FSSAI for strict vigilance?

  1. Ethylene
  2. Potassium Nitrate
  3. Calcium Carbide
  4. Sulphur Dioxide
Answer: C) Calcium Carbide
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has flagged calcium carbide as a hazardous agent often misused to artificially ripen fruits. Calcium carbide releases acetylene gas, which acts like ethylene and accelerates ripening, but it may produce harmful byproducts and pose health risks.

59. What is the primary objective of the Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan (VKSA-2025)?

  1. To promote urban agriculture in metropolitan cities
  2. To disseminate advanced agricultural and fisheries technologies to rural communities
  3. To import high-yield crop varieties from abroad
  4. To replace traditional farming methods with industrial farming
Answer: B) To disseminate advanced agricultural and fisheries technologies to rural communities
The Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan (VKSA-2025) was launched by the Government of India to spread awareness and adoption of modern agricultural and fisheries technologies among farmers, especially in rural areas. The campaign aims to ensure that scientific advancements in agriculture reach the grassroots level, enhancing productivity, sustainability, and farmers income. It covers both agriculture and allied sectors such as fisheries, animal husbandry, and horticulture.

60. Which innovative product was launched during the Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan (VKSA-2025) campaign to benefit the fisheries sector?

  1. A new breed of high-yielding rice
  2. A solar-powered irrigation pump
  3. A novel fish vaccine named “CIFA Argu VAX–I”
  4. A mobile app for market price updates
Answer: C) A novel fish vaccine named “CIFA Argu VAX–I”
During VKSA-2025, the Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture (CIFA) launched CIFA Argu VAX–I, India’s first indigenously developed fish vaccine. It is designed to protect freshwater fish against Argulosis, a parasitic disease caused by Argulus species that affects fish health and production. First of its kind in India’s aquaculture sector. Expected to reduce disease-related losses and improve fish yield.

61. What was the National Food Security Mission (NFSM) renamed to in 2024-25?

  1. National Food Security & Nutrition Mission (NFSNM)
  2. National Agriculture & Food Security Mission (NAFSM)
  3. National Food Security & Development Mission (NFSDM)
  4. National Food Security & Rural Development Mission (NFSRDM)
Answer: A) National Food Security & Nutrition Mission (NFSNM)
In 2024–25, the National Food Security Mission (NFSM) was renamed the National Food Security & Nutrition Mission (NFSNM) to include nutrition security along with food production. The updated mission emphasizes not only increasing production of staples like rice, wheat, pulses, and coarse grains but also ensuring nutritional diversity through millets and bio-fortified crops. Promotes cultivation of nutrient-rich crops such as millets and pulses. Supports India’s goal of achieving “Zero Hunger” and addressing malnutrition.

62. Which central nodal agencies are responsible for procuring pulses like Tur, Urad, and Masur under the government's procurement scheme?

  1. FCI and NABARD
  2. NAFED and NCCF
  3. ICAR and APEDA
  4. SFAC and TRIFED
Answer: B) NAFED and NCCF
The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) and the National Cooperative Consumers Federation of India (NCCF) are the two central nodal agencies responsible for procurement of pulses like Tur, Urad, and Masur at the Minimum Support Price (MSP). This step ensures price stability for farmers and adequate buffer stocks for the nation. NAFED and NCCF operate under the Department of Consumer Affairs. Procurement helps stabilize market prices and support farmers’ income. The initiative also helps manage food inflation.

63. When was the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) approved by the Union Cabinet?

  1. January 2024
  2. March 2024
  3. November 2024
  4. December 2024
Answer: C) November 2024
The National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF) was approved by the Union Cabinet in November 2024 to promote chemical-free, eco-friendly farming practices across India. The mission encourages farmers to adopt natural inputs like Jeevamrit, Beejamrit, and Ghanjeevamrit instead of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. NMNF promotes zero-budget natural farming (ZBNF). Enhances soil fertility and reduces input costs.

64. What is the primary objective of establishing the second National GenBank in India?

  1. To safeguard agricultural biodiversity and ensure food security
  2. To promote genetically modified crops
  3. To enhance fertilizer production
  4. To increase export of agricultural products
Answer: A) To safeguard agricultural biodiversity and ensure food security
The second National GenBank, established by ICAR–National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR), aims to conserve and safeguard India’s vast agricultural biodiversity. It ensures the long-term preservation of plant genetic resources crucial for food security and future crop improvement. The first GenBank is located in New Delhi. Stores seeds, tissues, and genetic material of major and minor crops. Provides backup for crop diversity essential for sustainable agriculture.

65. Which technologies are utilized by the National Pest Surveillance System (NPSS) for pest surveillance and management?

  1. Blockchain and IoT
  2. Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning
  3. Satellite Imaging and GIS
  4. Big Data Analytics and Cloud Computing
Answer: B) Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learning
The National Pest Surveillance System (NPSS), developed under the ICAR-NCIPM, uses Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) for real-time monitoring and prediction of pest outbreaks. These technologies analyze data from digital sensors, satellite images, and weather parameters to assist farmers in timely pest control. Helps in data-driven pest forecasting and early warning systems. Reduces crop loss through proactive pest management. Integrates with digital agriculture platforms for nationwide coverage.

International Relations and World Events

This section covers India's relations with other countries, international agreements, and major global political news.

66. As of April 2025, which country became Sri Lanka's second-largest export destination, surpassing the United Kingdom?

  1. China
  2. India
  3. Germany
  4. United Arab Emirates
Answer: B) India
As of April 2025, India became Sri Lanka's second-largest export destination, surpassing the United Kingdom. The United States remains Sri Lanka's largest export market, followed by India. Major Exports to India: Textiles and garments, Tea and spices, Rubber and related products, Agricultural goods and value-added products. India and Sri Lanka are part of the India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (ISFTA), which helps reduce tariffs and boosts trade. India is also one of Sri Lanka's largest investors and a major source of essential imports such as fuel and machinery. India's growing role as a major export partner strengthens regional economic integration in South Asia. This development reduces Sri Lanka's dependence on Western markets like the UK.

67. Which sectors were key contributors to Sri Lanka's export growth in April 2025?

  1. Apparel, Tea, and Coconut-based products
  2. Electronics, Automobiles, and Pharmaceuticals
  3. Petroleum, Machinery, and Chemicals
  4. Gold, Diamonds, and Jewelry
Answer: A) Apparel, Tea, and Coconut-based products
In April 2025, Sri Lanka recorded strong export performance, with Apparel, Tea, and Coconut-based products being the key contributors. Apparel exports remained the backbone of Sri Lanka's economy, accounting for the largest share in export earnings due to steady demand in international markets. Tea exports continued to strengthen Sri Lanka's traditional role as one of the world's leading tea exporters, especially to markets like the Middle East, Russia, and India. Coconut-based products (including coir, desiccated coconut, coconut oil, and value-added products) also made significant contributions to export revenues. These three sectors together generate the highest foreign exchange earnings for Sri Lanka. They play a critical role in stabilizing Sri Lanka's trade balance.

68. Who is the Prime Minister of Denmark who welcomed Dr. Jaishankar during his visit?

  1. Lars Lokke Rasmussen
  2. Mette Frederiksen
  3. Dick Schoof
  4. Caspar Veldkamp
Answer: B) Mette Frederiksen
Dr. S. Jaishankar is the External Affairs Minister of India. He visited Denmark as part of India’s diplomatic outreach. During this visit, he was welcomed by the Prime Minister of Denmark. The Prime Minister of Denmark is Mette Frederiksen. She has been serving as Denmark’s Prime Minister since 2019. The meeting highlighted the strong diplomatic relations between India and Denmark. Denmark is an important partner for India in renewable energy and sustainability. The visit reflects India’s focus on deepening ties with European countries.

69. Which agreement facilitated India's enhanced participation in INDEX Dubai 2025?

  1. India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
  2. India-UAE Free Trade Agreement
  3. India-GCC Trade Accord
  4. South Asia-Middle East Trade Agreement
Answer: A) India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
INDEX Dubai is a major international exhibition related to interior design, furniture, and fit-out industries. INDEX Dubai 2025 saw increased participation from Indian companies. This enhanced participation was facilitated by the India–UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). CEPA came into force in May 2022 between India and the United Arab Emirates. The agreement aims to boost trade, investment, and economic cooperation between the two countries. Under CEPA, many goods receive lower customs duties or zero tariffs. This makes it easier and more cost-effective for Indian businesses to access UAE markets. Indian exhibitors benefited from simplified trade procedures and better market access at INDEX Dubai 2025.

70. What is the primary purpose of the UK-Mauritius agreement concerning the Chagos Islands signed in May 2025?

  1. To establish a new trade partnership between the UK and Mauritius
  2. To transfer sovereignty of the Chagos Islands to Mauritius while securing a lease for the UK-US military base on Diego Garcia
  3. To promote tourism development in the Chagos Archipelago
  4. To resolve fishing rights disputes in the Indian Ocean
Answer: B) To transfer sovereignty of the Chagos Islands to Mauritius while securing a lease for the UK-US military base on Diego Garcia
The Chagos Islands are a group of islands in the Indian Ocean. The islands were separated from Mauritius by the United Kingdom in 1965, before Mauritius became independent. For many years, Mauritius has claimed that the Chagos Islands belong to it. The Diego Garcia island in the Chagos group hosts an important UK-US military base. In May 2025, the UK and Mauritius signed an agreement on the Chagos Islands issue. Under this agreement, the United Kingdom agreed to transfer sovereignty of the Chagos Islands to Mauritius. At the same time, Mauritius agreed to lease Diego Garcia to allow the UK-US military base to continue operating. This arrangement ensures strategic and security interests of the UK and the United States.

71. Where did the SCO Defence Ministers meeting take place that Defence Minister Rajnath Singh attended on June 25–26, 2025?

  1. Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan
  2. Qingdao, China
  3. Tashkent, Uzbekistan
  4. New Delhi, India
Answer: B) Qingdao, China
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a regional grouping focused on security, defence, and cooperation. SCO includes countries like India, China, Russia, Pakistan, and Central Asian nations. The SCO Defence Ministers’ Meeting is held regularly to discuss regional and global security issues. In June 2025, the SCO Defence Ministers’ Meeting was held on June 25–26. The meeting took place in Qingdao, China. During the meeting, defence ministers discussed terrorism, regional stability, and defence cooperation. India used the meeting to highlight its concerns on peace, security, and counter-terrorism.

72. What was the primary theme of the 15th BRICS Agriculture Ministers’ Meeting held in Brasilia in April 2025?

  1. Enhancing global trade through agriculture
  2. Advancing biotechnology in agriculture
  3. Promoting inclusive and sustainable agriculture through cooperation, innovation, and equitable trade among BRICS countries
  4. Developing digital platforms for agricultural marketing
Answer: C) Promoting inclusive and sustainable agriculture through cooperation, innovation, and equitable trade among BRICS countries
The 15th BRICS Agriculture Ministers Meeting, held in Brasilia, Brazil in April 2025, focused on strengthening agricultural cooperation among member countries. The theme highlighted the importance of inclusive and sustainable agriculture, emphasizing innovation, climate resilience, and fair trade practices. Theme aligns with UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Discussed technology sharing, research collaboration, and agri-trade fairness. India advocated for digital agriculture and climate-smart practices.

73. Which of the following areas were discussed for cooperation between India and Brazil during Agriculture Minister's visit?

  1. Space technology and defense
  2. Urban development and smart cities
  3. Information technology and cybersecurity
  4. Biofuel, bioenergy, supply chain integration, and agricultural machinery
Answer: D) Biofuel, bioenergy, supply chain integration, and agricultural machinery
During the India–Brazil agricultural cooperation talks in 2025, both nations agreed to strengthen partnerships in biofuels, bioenergy, agricultural mechanization, and supply chain management. The focus was on utilizing clean energy sources and technology to improve productivity and reduce carbon footprints. Cooperation supports sustainable energy transition in agriculture. Emphasis on biofuel research using sugarcane and maize. Enhances bilateral trade and technology exchange in agri-equipment and logistics.

74. Which international groups are mentioned as beneficiaries of India's second GenBank initiative?

  1. ASEAN and EU
  2. SAARC and BRICS
  3. G7 and OPEC
  4. NAFTA and MERCOSUR
Answer: B) SAARC and BRICS
India’s second National GenBank is designed to benefit SAARC and BRICS nations by promoting regional cooperation in genetic resource conservation and agricultural research. The initiative supports cross-border research collaborations and helps developing nations secure their agricultural biodiversity. Facilitates exchange of genetic materials among member nations. Enhances India’s leadership in South-South agricultural cooperation. Strengthens food security across developing economies.

Sports, Awards, and Appointments

This section covers sporting events, major awards (Padma, Nobel), and high-level appointments.

75. Who was crowned Miss World 2025 at the 72nd edition of the pageant held in Hyderabad?

  1. Krystyna Pyszkova
  2. Nandini Gupta
  3. Suchata Chuangsri
  4. Hasset Dereje Admassu
Answer: C) Suchata Chuangsri
The Miss World 2025 pageant was the 72nd edition of the Miss World competition. It was held in Hyderabad, India, marking a major international cultural event for the country. Suchata Chuangsri was crowned Miss World 2025. She represented Thailand in the competition. The Miss World contest focuses on the theme of “Beauty with a Purpose”. Suchata Chuangsri actively supported social and humanitarian causes, which helped her win the title. The event showcased India’s culture, hospitality, and global presence.

76. Which Indian athlete won the javelin throw title at the Ostrava Golden Spike 2025 meet?

  1. Avinash Sable
  2. Kishore Jena
  3. Neeraj Chopra
  4. Manu DP
Answer: C) Neeraj Chopra
At the Ostrava Golden Spike 2025 (a World Athletics Continental Tour Gold meeting), Neeraj Chopra won the men’s javelin title with a best throw of 85.29 m. Neeraj was the only athlete at that meet to cross the 85 m mark. Ostrava Golden Spike is a prominent track & field meet in the Czech Republic and part of the Continental Tour circuit.

77. Indian para athlete Mahendra Gurjar recently set a new world record in which athletics event at the Nottwil World Para Athletics Grand Prix in Switzerland?

  1. Men's T42 Long Jump
  2. Men's F42 Shot Put
  3. Men's F42 Javelin
  4. Men's T42 Discus Throw
Answer: C) Men's F42 Javelin
Mahendra Gurjar broke the world record in the Men’s F42 javelin throw category at the Nottwil World Para Athletics Grand Prix with a throw of 61.17 m. F42 category is for athletes with lower limb impairments/above-knee amputation or equivalent. This record boosts India’s standing in para-athletics globally.

78. What was India’s final medal tally at the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships?

  1. 20 medals
  2. 24 medals
  3. 18 medals
  4. 22 medals
Answer: B) 24 medals
In the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships, India secured a total of 24 medals. The tally includes medals across track, field, and combined events. Performance at the Asian Championships is crucial for continental ranking and morale. These championships serve as a benchmark for Indian athletes ahead of World Championships and Olympics.

79. Australian all-rounder Glenn Maxwell recently announced his retirement from which cricket format?

  1. Test Cricket
  2. T20 Internationals
  3. One-Day Internationals (ODIs)
  4. Indian Premier League (IPL)
Answer: C) One-Day Internationals (ODIs)
Glenn Maxwell has announced his retirement from ODIs (One-Day Internationals) while continuing to play T20s and Tests. Retirement from ODIs helps players manage workload, especially in packed schedules. Maxwell’s decision reflects modern cricketers’ focus on limited-overs formats and specialization.

80. Who won the Men's Singles title at the French Open 2025?

  1. Novak Djokovic
  2. Carlos Alcaraz
  3. Jannik Sinner
  4. Rafael Nadal
Answer: B) Carlos Alcaraz
Carlos Alcaraz emerged as the Men’s Singles champion at the French Open 2025, beating his competitors in the clay-court Grand Slam. The French Open (Roland Garros) is one of the four Grand Slam tournaments and tests players on clay. Grand Slam titles are key milestones and heavily weighted in tennis rankings and legacy.

81. Which player clinched the Women's Singles title at the French Open 2025?

  1. Iga Swiatek
  2. Aryna Sabalenka
  3. Coco Gauff
  4. Elena Rybakina
Answer: C) Coco Gauff
Coco Gauff won the Women’s Singles title at French Open 2025, securing a Grand Slam victory on clay. Grand Slam titles contribute significantly to a player’s ranking, endorsements, and legacy. Women’s singles draws at Grand Slams are highly competitive, so this win is notable.

82. Who won the Open section of Norway Chess 2025?

  1. Fabiano Caruana
  2. Gukesh Dommaraju
  3. Hikaru Nakamura
  4. Magnus Carlsen
Answer: D) Magnus Carlsen
In the Open (men’s) section of Norway Chess 2025, Magnus Carlsen claimed the title. This is consistent with his dominance in classical chess and high-break tournament performance. Magnus Carlsen is a former World Champion, known for consistency in top-level events. Norway Chess attracts elite players—winning it adds to prestige and rating.

83. Who won the Women’s section of Norway Chess 2025?

  1. Lei Tingjie
  2. Anna Muzychuk
  3. Koneru Humpy
  4. Ju Wenjun
Answer: B) Anna Muzychuk
In the Women’s section of Norway Chess 2025, Anna Muzychuk won the title. She is a strong female grandmaster with multiple accolades. Anna Muzychuk has previously held the Women’s World Championship (rapid/blitz) titles. Her victory in a mixed or women’s section enhances visibility for women in chess.

84. Which state topped the medal tally in the Khelo India Youth Games 2025?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Haryana
  3. Karnataka
  4. Punjab
Answer: A) Maharashtra
In the 7th Khelo India Youth Games (2025), Maharashtra topped the overall medal tally with 158 total medals (58 gold, 47 silver, 53 bronze). Maharashtra has now won the Khelo India Youth Games title for three consecutive editions. The state’s performance reflects strong grassroots sports development programs. Khelo India Youth Games serve as a talent identification platform for future national athletes.

85. Which team won the UEFA Champions League 2025 title?

  1. Manchester City
  2. Real Madrid
  3. Bayern Munich
  4. Paris Saint-Germain
Answer: D) Paris Saint-Germain
Paris Saint-Germain (PSG) won the UEFA Champions League 2025 by defeating their opponent in the final and claiming Europe’s top club football prize in that season. Winning the Champions League is the pinnacle for European club teams—high prestige, revenue, and recognition. Success in Champions League boosts a club’s brand, attracts better players, and increases global visibility.

86. Which Indian boxer won gold in the 75kg category at the Thailand Open 2025?

  1. Deepak Tanwar
  2. Naman Tanwar
  3. Amit Panghal
  4. Shiva Thapa
Answer: A) Deepak Tanwar
At the Thailand Open 2025 International Boxing Tournament, Deepak Tanwar clinched the gold medal in the men’s 75 kg division by defeating Abdurakhimov Javokhir of Uzbekistan with a 5:0 verdict. India had a successful show at Thailand Open 2025, winning eight medals in all, with Deepak and Naman Tanwar contributing two golds. Naman Tanwar won the gold in the 90 kg category at the same tournament.

87. Who was appointed as the Chief Minister of Delhi, becoming the fourth woman to hold this position in the capital?

  1. Atishi Marlena
  2. Sheila Dikshit
  3. Rekha Gupta
  4. Sushma Swaraj
Answer: C) Rekha Gupta
Rekha Gupta was appointed as the Chief Minister of Delhi, becoming the fourth woman to hold the post in the national capital. Her appointment marks an important moment in Delhi’s political history, highlighting increased women’s representation in leadership roles.

88. Who was appointed as the new Governor of Mizoram?

  1. Ajay Kumar Bhalla
  2. Vijay Kumar Singh
  3. Hari Babu Kambhampati
  4. Raghubar Das
Answer: B) Vijay Kumar Singh
Vijay Kumar Singh was appointed as the new Governor of Mizoram. He is a former Chief of the Indian Army and a senior political leader, and his appointment is part of the Centre’s regular gubernatorial appointments in Indian states.

89. Which former Governor of Mizoram was appointed as the Governor of Odisha?

  1. Hari Babu Kambhampati
  2. Raghubar Das
  3. Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
  4. Arif Mohammed Khan
Answer: A) Hari Babu Kambhampati
Hari Babu Kambhampati, who earlier served as the Governor of Mizoram, was appointed as the Governor of Odisha. His appointment reflects the Centre’s practice of transferring experienced Governors to different states to ensure effective constitutional administration.

90. Who was appointed as the 11th Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)?

  1. K. Sivan
  2. S. Somanath
  3. V. Narayanan
  4. M. Mohan
Answer: C) V. Narayanan
V. Narayanan was appointed as the 11th Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). He is a senior scientist known for his contributions to India’s space and launch vehicle programmes, and his appointment marks a new phase in ISRO’s leadership.

91. Who was appointed as the 52nd Chief Justice of India in May 2025?

  1. Justice Sanjiv Khanna
  2. Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai
  3. Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
  4. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
Answer: B) Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai
Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai was appointed as the 52nd Chief Justice of India (CJI) in May 2025. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud and became the second Dalit Chief Justice of India, marking an important milestone in the country’s judicial history.

92. Who assumed charge as the new Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India in 2025?

  1. Rajiv Kumar
  2. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
  3. Sunil Arora
  4. Gyanesh Kumar
Answer: D) Gyanesh Kumar
Gyanesh Kumar assumed charge as the new Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India in 2025. He took over the role as the head of the Election Commission of India, which is responsible for conducting free, fair, and transparent elections across the country.

93. Who has been appointed as the new Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ahead of the MPC meeting?

  1. Shaktikanta Das
  2. Poonam Gupta
  3. Micheal Debabrata Patra
  4. Urjit Patel
Answer: B) Poonam Gupta
Poonam Gupta was appointed as the new Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ahead of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting. She is a noted economist, and her appointment strengthens the RBI’s leadership in monetary policy formulation and economic decision-making.

94. Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of the 23rd Law Commission of India in April 2025?

  1. Justice (Retd.) R. F. Nariman
  2. Justice (Retd.) A. K. Sikri
  3. Justice (Retd.) Dinesh Maheshwari
  4. Justice (Retd.) Madan B. Lokur
Answer: C) Justice (Retd.) Dinesh Maheshwari
Justice (Retd.) Dinesh Maheshwari was appointed as the Chairperson of the 23rd Law Commission of India in April 2025. The Law Commission is an important advisory body that examines legal reforms and law review, and his appointment brings extensive judicial experience to the commission.

95. Who has been appointed as the new Director General (D-G) of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)?

  1. Gyanendra Pratap Singh
  2. Rakesh Asthana
  3. Kuldiep Singh
  4. Anil Chauhan
Answer: A) Gyanendra Pratap Singh
Gyanendra Pratap Singh was appointed as the new Director General (D-G) of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF). As the head of India’s largest central armed police force, he is responsible for internal security, counter-insurgency, and law and order operations across the country.

96. Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for a three-year term?

  1. Ajay Tyagi
  2. T.V. Somanathan
  3. Madhabi Puri Buch
  4. Tuhin Kanta Pandey
Answer: D) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
Tuhin Kanta Pandey was appointed as the new Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for a three-year term. SEBI is the regulatory body of India’s capital markets, and his appointment aims to strengthen market regulation, investor protection, and financial stability.

97. Which renowned playback singer received the Padma Shri in 2025 for his contributions to the field of art?

  1. Sonu Nigam
  2. Arijit Singh
  3. Shreya Ghoshal
  4. Kumar Sanu
Answer: B) Arijit Singh
Arijit Singh received the Padma Shri in 2025 in recognition of his outstanding contribution to the field of art, especially Indian playback singing. He is one of the most popular singers in contemporary Indian music and has made a significant impact through his versatile and soulful performances.

98. Which veteran Marathi actor was awarded the Padma Shri in 2025 for his contributions to cinema?

  1. Nana Patekar
  2. Sachin Pilgaonkar
  3. Ashok Saraf
  4. Vikram Gokhale
Answer: C) Ashok Saraf
Ashok Saraf, a veteran Marathi film and theatre actor, was awarded the Padma Shri in 2025 for his exceptional contribution to Indian cinema and performing arts. He is widely known for his long and influential career in Marathi films, television, and theatre.

99. Which Grammy-winning Indian musician received the Padma Shri in 2025 for his contributions to music and environmental advocacy?

  1. Ricky Kej
  2. A. R. Rahman
  3. Zakir Hussain
  4. Shankar Mahadevan
Answer: A) Ricky Kej
Ricky Kej, a Grammy Award–winning Indian musician, received the Padma Shri in 2025 for his contributions to music and environmental advocacy. He is known globally for using music to promote climate awareness, sustainability, and environmental conservation.

100. Who became the first Indian-origin musician to win an American Music Award (AMA)?

  1. A. R. Rahman
  2. Ravi Shankar
  3. Anoushka Shankar
  4. Raja Kumari
Answer: D) Raja Kumari
Raja Kumari became the first Indian-origin musician to win an American Music Award (AMA). Her achievement marks a significant milestone for Indian representation in global music, highlighting the growing international recognition of Indian-origin artists.

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