General Knowledge Questions and Answers - GK Questions with Answers

Explore 100 General Knowledge Questions and Answers - GK Questions with Answers : In this article, we have compiled a diverse set of General Knowledge Questions and Answers (GK questions), covering important topics like Geography, History, Science, Sports, World, Public Administration, Space, Art and Culture, Environment, International Organizations, Awards and many more.

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - GK Questions with Answers

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - GK Questions with Answers

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - Geography

1. The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which of the following Indian states?

  1. Mizoram
  2. Gujarat
  3. Tripura
  4. Maharashtra

Answer: D) Maharashtra

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line located at 23.5° North latitude. It marks the northernmost point on Earth where the sun can be directly overhead at noon. In India, it passes through 8 states - Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. India is the only country in the world through which the Tropic of Cancer passes almost at its center. It divides India into two halves: the tropical zone (south) and the subtropical zone (north).

Trusted Source: National Portal of India, PIB (Press Information Bureau), NCERT

2. India is located to the North of the __ ?

  1. Tropic of Cancer
  2. Prime Meridian
  3. Equator
  4. Arctic Circle

Answer: C) Equator

Explanation: The Equator is an imaginary line that divides the Earth into Northern and Southern Hemispheres. It is located at 0° latitude. India lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, which means it is to the north of the Equator. India is north of the Equator and east of the Prime Meridian.

Trusted Source: NCERT, Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), PIB (Press Information Bureau)

3. Which state in India receives the highest average annual rainfall?

  1. Assam
  2. Mizoram
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: C) Meghalaya

Explanation: Meghalaya receives the highest average annual rainfall in India. Mawsynram and Cherrapunji, located in East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, are among the wettest places on Earth. Mawsynram receives over 11,000 mm of rainfall annually. The heavy rainfall is due to its location on the windward side of the Khasi Hills, where the monsoon winds are forced to rise, causing continuous and heavy rain. Other high rainfall states include Kerala, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Assam, but none exceed Meghalaya.

Trusted Source: NCERT, National Portal of India

4. The easternmost point of India is:

  1. Kibithu, Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Dong, Arunachal Pradesh
  3. Moreh, Manipur
  4. Dibrugarh, Assam

Answer: B) Dong, Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation: Dong is a small village located in the Anjaw district of Arunachal Pradesh. It is the easternmost inhabited place in India. Dong is the first place in India to receive the sunrise, which makes it geographically significant. Located near the tri-junction of India, China, and Myanmar. It lies close to the India–China Line of Actual Control (LAC). This region is part of the Eastern Himalayan ranges. Due to its location, the sun rises in Dong about an hour earlier than in western India (like Gujarat).

Trusted Source: PIB (Press Information Bureau), National Portal of India

5. Which of the following Indian states does NOT share its boundaries with Nepal?

  1. Assam
  2. West Bengal
  3. Uttarakhand
  4. Sikkim

Answer: A) Assam

Explanation: India shares a 1,770 km long boundary with Nepal. Only five states of India share a border with Nepal: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Sikkim. Assam lies further east in the northeast region of India. It shares borders with Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Bangladesh but NOT with Nepal.

Trusted Source: National Portal of India, Ministry of Home Affairs

Also Read: 100 General Knowledge Questions and Answers

6. Name the westernmost point of India.

  1. Amreli
  2. Dahod
  3. Bharuch
  4. Ghuar Moti

Answer: D) Ghuar Moti

Explanation: Ghuar Moti is located in Lakhpat Taluka of Kutch district, Gujarat. It is considered the westernmost inhabited location of India, lying near the India–Pakistan border. The location lies near the Sir Creek area on the coast of the Arabian Sea. The westernmost point of the Indian mainland is different from the westernmost point of the territory. Ghuar Moti marks the western end of the mainland. The easternmost point of India is Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh, the northernmost point is Indira Col in Siachen Glacier (Jammu & Kashmir), and the southernmost point is Indira Point in Great Nicobar Island. It holds geographical and strategic importance due to its proximity to the international border.

7. The __ Channel separates the Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands.

  1. Eight Degree
  2. Ten Degree
  3. Six Degree
  4. Twelve Degree

Answer: B) Ten Degree Channel

Explanation: The Ten Degree Channel is located at around 10° North latitude. The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman group of islands in the north (Little Andaman) from the Nicobar group of islands in the south (Car Nicobar). The channel is about 150 km wide, making it a significant natural division between the two island groups. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands together form a Union Territory of India, with Port Blair as its capital. The Andaman Islands lie to the north, while the Nicobar Islands lie to the south of the Ten Degree Channel. It holds strategic maritime importance for India’s security, defense, and trade in the Indo-Pacific region.

8. In which Indian state will you find Mount Tiyi?

  1. Odisha
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Arunachal Pradesh
  4. Nagaland

Answer: D) Nagaland

Explanation: Mount Tiyi is located in Wokha district of Nagaland in Northeast India. It is sometimes called the 'Mount of Life' in local folklore due to legends of a mythical orchard said to exist there. The mountain is famous for its wildflowers and biodiversity, making it an ecological hotspot. Mount Tiyi is also considered a sacred place by the local tribes of Nagaland. It is a popular spot for trekking and tourism in the region, attracting nature lovers. The mountain contributes to the cultural identity of the Lotha Naga tribe, who inhabit the Wokha district.

9. Purvanchal Himalayas does NOT comprise of:

  1. Naga hills
  2. Pir Panjal range
  3. Manipur hills
  4. Mizo hills

Answer: B) Pir Panjal range

Explanation: The Purvanchal Himalayas are the eastern extension of the Himalayas located in Northeast India. They consist of several hill ranges such as the Patkai Hills, Naga Hills, Manipur Hills, Mizo Hills, and Barail Range. These hills are mostly covered with dense forests and inhabited by numerous tribal communities. The Purvanchal ranges act as a natural boundary between India and Myanmar. The Pir Panjal Range lies in the western Himalayas, mostly in Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh, and is therefore not a part of the Purvanchal Himalayas. Pir Panjal is famous for passes such as Banihal Pass and Pir Panjal Pass, which are strategically important.

10. The upper portion of the Earth is known as:

  1. Stratosphere
  2. Troposphere
  3. Lithosphere
  4. Mesosphere

Answer: C) Lithosphere

Explanation: The Lithosphere is the solid outermost layer of the Earth. It includes the Earth’s crust (continental and oceanic) and the uppermost part of the mantle. The lithosphere is divided into several tectonic plates, which are constantly moving. Movements of lithospheric plates cause earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, ocean trench formation, and mountain building. The thickness of the lithosphere varies from about 5–70 km (thin under oceans, thick under continents). It lies above the asthenosphere, which is partially molten and allows plate movement.

11. Which is the largest desert in the world?

  1. Sahara Desert
  2. Arabian Desert
  3. Gobi Desert
  4. Antarctic Desert

Answer: D) Antarctic Desert

Explanation: The Antarctic Desert covers approximately 14 million sq. km, making it the largest desert on Earth. It is classified as a cold desert, unlike Sahara or Arabian deserts which are hot deserts. Antarctica receives less than 50 mm of rainfall annually, making it a cold desert. Though the Sahara Desert is the largest hot desert, it is smaller than the Antarctic Desert in total area. The Sahara Desert (about 9.2 million sq. km) is the largest hot desert in the world. A desert is defined by low precipitation (less than 250 mm annually), not by the presence of sand. Other major deserts include: Arctic Desert (second-largest cold desert), Arabian Desert (third-largest hot desert) and Gobi Desert in China and Mongolia (cold desert).

Also Read: States and Capitals of India 2025

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - History

1. With reference to Sepoy Mutiny of 1857, on which of the following dates did the soldiers at Meerut start their journey to Delhi?

  1. 10 May
  2. 19 April
  3. 2 June
  4. 29 March

Answer: A) 10 May

Explanation: The Sepoy Mutiny, also known as the First War of Indian Independence, began in Meerut on 10 May 1857. On this day, the sepoys (Indian soldiers) who were stationed at Meerut revolted against their British officers due to several grievances, including the introduction of greased cartridges that hurt their religious sentiments. After Meerut, the revolt spread rapidly to places like Kanpur, Lucknow, Jhansi, Gwalior, Bareilly, and Arrah. After rebelling, the soldiers marched to Delhi, where they declared Bahadur Shah II (Bahadur Shah Zafar), the last Mughal emperor, as the symbolic leader of their uprising. The revolt of 1857 is considered the first major challenge to British rule in India and is often called the First War of Indian Independence.

2. The revolution of 1857 started in May from which of the following cantonments in India?

  1. Kanpur
  2. Jhansi
  3. Lucknow
  4. Meerut

Answer: D) Meerut

Explanation: The Revolt of 1857, also known as the Sepoy Mutiny or the First War of Indian Independence, began in Meerut cantonment on 10 May 1857. Indian sepoys stationed there refused to use the new Enfield rifle cartridges that were believed to be greased with cow and pig fat, hurting both Hindu and Muslim religious sentiments. When the sepoys at Meerut were punished for refusing to use these cartridges, their anger turned into open rebellion. They revolted against their British officers, killed several of them, and then marched to Delhi. In Delhi, they declared Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last Mughal emperor, as the leader of the uprising.

3. To promote agriculture, Muhammad Tughlaq founded which of the following new ministries?

  1. Diwan-i-Arz
  2. Diwan-i Amir-i kohi
  3. Diwan-i-Insha
  4. Diwan-i-Risalat

Answer: B) Diwan-i Amir-i kohi

Explanation: Muhammad bin Tughlaq (1325–1351), the Sultan of Delhi from the Tughlaq dynasty, introduced several administrative and economic reforms. To promote agriculture and ensure food security, he established a new department called Diwan-i-Amir-i-Kohi. The main aim of this ministry was to develop agriculture by bringing uncultivated land under cultivation. The Sultan provided financial assistance, seeds, cattle, and implements to farmers. However, due to poor implementation, corruption, and natural calamities like droughts, the scheme largely failed. Despite its failure, it reflects the Sultan’s vision of using the state’s resources to improve agriculture.

4. Who among the following Pallava kings occupied Vatapi (Badami) and defeated the Chalukyas?

  1. Sivaskanda Varman
  2. Parameswaravarman
  3. Simhavarman
  4. Narasimhavarman

Answer: D) Narasimhavarman

Explanation: The Pallava king Narasimhavarman I (AD 630–668), also known as Mahamalla, was one of the greatest rulers of the Pallava dynasty. He is remembered for his military conquests, cultural contributions, and temple architecture. Narasimhavarman I defeated the Chalukya king Pulakeshin II in a famous battle in AD 642. After the victory, he captured and occupied the Chalukya capital Vatapi (modern Badami, Karnataka). Because of this achievement, he earned the title “Vatapikonda”, meaning “Conqueror of Vatapi”. This victory significantly weakened the Chalukyas and enhanced the prestige of the Pallavas in South India.

5. Medini Rai of Chanderi, Hasan Khan of Mewat and Mahmud Lodi joined Rana Sanga with their forces to fight against which of the following Mughal rulers?

  1. Babur
  2. Akbar
  3. Aurangzeb
  4. Humayun

Answer: A) Babur

Explanation: In the early 16th century, the Rajput ruler Rana Sanga of Mewar organized a powerful confederacy of Indian rulers and chiefs to resist the advance of the Mughal ruler Babur. Prominent rulers who joined him were: Medini Rai of Chanderi, Hasan Khan Mewati (ruler of Mewat) and Mahmud Lodi (brother of Ibrahim Lodi, the last Sultan of Delhi). Together, they confronted Babur at the Battle of Khanwa (1527), fought near Agra. Despite their large numbers, the Rajput confederacy was defeated due to Babur’s superior military strategy, use of artillery, and disciplined cavalry. This battle firmly established the Mughal Empire in India.

Also Read: Science Quiz Questions and Answers - Science General Knowledge

6. Belur Math was founded by which of the following social reformers in British India?

  1. Swami Vivekanand
  2. RG Bhandarkar
  3. VN Mandlik
  4. KT Telang

Answer: A) Swami Vivekanand

Explanation: Belur Math, located on the western bank of the Hooghly River near Kolkata, was founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897. It serves as the headquarters of the Ramakrishna Math and Ramakrishna Mission, which are spiritual and philanthropic organizations inspired by the teachings of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, the spiritual guru of Vivekananda. The Math is not just a monastery but also a symbol of the harmony of religions. Its architecture uniquely blends Hindu, Christian, and Islamic styles, reflecting the universal message of acceptance and unity that Swami Vivekananda preached.

7. Which of the following groups/parties was started in San Francisco, United States of America during the Indian National Movement?

  1. Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
  2. Swaraj Party
  3. Ghadar Party
  4. Khilafat Committee

Answer: C) Ghadar Party

Explanation: The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 in San Francisco, USA, by a group of Indian immigrants, mostly Punjabi Sikhs, with the aim of liberating India from British rule through an armed revolution. The party was led by Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, and Kartar Singh Sarabha, among others. It published a newspaper called 'Ghadar', which spread revolutionary ideas and motivated Indians abroad and at home to fight against colonial rule. The Ghadar Party played a significant role in inspiring revolutionary nationalism in India and abroad, though many of its early attempts were suppressed by the British.

8. In which of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi, along with other Indians, establish the Natal Congress to fight against racial discrimination?

  1. India
  2. South Africa
  3. England
  4. France

Answer: B) South Africa

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi went to South Africa in 1893 as a young lawyer to represent an Indian merchant in a legal case. While living there, he experienced severe racial discrimination, which deeply influenced his future path of struggle against injustice. To organize the Indian community and fight against discriminatory laws and practices, Gandhi, along with other Indians, established the Natal Indian Congress (NIC) in 1894 in Natal, South Africa. The organization aimed to safeguard the rights of Indians living in South Africa and resist racial segregation through petitions, public campaigns, and later, through Satyagraha (non-violent resistance).

9. Which type of well-managed industry was established in India at the time of independence?

  1. Electronics and Electricals
  2. Steel and Electronics
  3. Steel and Cotton
  4. Cement and Sugar

Answer: C) Steel and Cotton

Explanation: At the time of India’s independence in 1947, the country’s industrial base was very limited. Modern industries were not widespread, and India remained largely an agrarian economy. However, some industries were well-developed and managed due to the efforts of industrial pioneers and British-era policies. The steel industry (notably Tata Iron and Steel Company, TISCO, founded in 1907 at Jamshedpur) was already functioning efficiently. Similarly, the cotton textile industry, especially in regions like Bombay (Mumbai), Ahmedabad, and Sholapur, was well-established and played a crucial role in both domestic markets and exports. Other industries like electronics, cement, and sugar were either in their early stages or not well-organized on a large scale during independence.

10. Pushyabhuti dynasty, after Prabhakarvardhana, strengthened its position in the regions of Punjab and Haryana after defeating which of the following dynasties?

  1. Maukharis
  2. Hunas
  3. Chalukyas
  4. Maitrakas

Answer: B) Hunas

Explanation: The Pushyabhuti dynasty (also called the Vardhana dynasty) rose to prominence in North India during the 6th–7th centuries CE. Its most powerful ruler was Harshavardhana (606–647 CE), who extended the dynasty’s influence across northern India. Prabhakarvardhana, the father of Harshavardhana, played a key role in consolidating the dynasty’s rule in the regions of Punjab and Haryana. He achieved this by successfully defeating the Hunas, who had been a major threat to North India since the 5th century CE. The defeat of the Hunas removed a major obstacle for the Pushyabhutis and helped them establish their authority firmly in northwestern India. This also laid the foundation for the later expansion under Harsha.

Also Read: Daily Current Affairs 2025

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - Art and Culture

1. Name the pass in Uttarakhand which is used by pilgrims to Kailash-Mansarovar Yatra.

  1. Pensi La
  2. Lipu Lekh
  3. Banihal Pass
  4. Khardung La

Answer: B) Lipu Lekh

2. __ in Himachal Pradesh is a famous tourist attraction.

  1. Aghil Pass
  2. Chang La Pass
  3. Mintaka Pass
  4. Rohtang Pass

Answer: D) Rohtang Pass

3. Who among the following is the world renowned exponent of the bamboo flute?

  1. MS Subbulakshmi
  2. Ravi Shankar
  3. Hariprasad Chaurasia
  4. Bismillah Khan

Answer: C) Hariprasad Chaurasia

4. Kathakali, one of the classical dances of India, is predominantly performed in which of the following states of India?

  1. Assam
  2. Manipur
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Kerala

Answer: D) Kerala

5. In which state/UT is the Hemis festival celebrated?

  1. Punjab
  2. Sikkim
  3. Lakshadweep
  4. Ladakh

Answer: D) Ladakh

Also Read: Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2025

6. ‘Kuki dance’ is a folk dance of India that is predominantly performed in _________.

  1. Nagaland
  2. Karnataka
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Rajasthan

Answer: A) Nagaland

7. The ‘Lokranjan’ festival celebrates the folk and tribal culture of which Indian state?

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Manipur
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Answer: D) Madhya Pradesh

8. Umayalpuram K Sivaraman is an eminent musician associated with which of the following musical instruments?

  1. Sitar
  2. Guitar
  3. Dhol
  4. Mridangam

Answer: D) Mridangam

9. Rottela Panduga or the Roti Festival is celebrated in which Indian state?

  1. Karnataka
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Tamil Nadu

Answer: C) Andhra Pradesh

10. Fugdi dance is associated with which of the following states?

  1. Goa
  2. Uttarakhand
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Kerala

Answer: A) Goa

Also Read: Top 100 Current Affairs 2025 Questions and Answers

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - Science

1. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. Light year is the unit of distance.
  2. Light year is the distance travelled by light in one year.
  3. Light year is the unit of time.
  4. Angstrom is unit of length.

Answer: C) Light year is the unit of time.

2. Which of the following parts of the mountain will receive the most rainfall from moisture-laden winds?

  1. Windward side
  2. Leeward side
  3. Upward side
  4. Relief side

Answer: A) Windward side

3. If a bar magnet is hung from a string, in which direction does its north pole point?

  1. West
  2. North
  3. East
  4. South

Answer: B) North

4. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding water remaining colder in an earthen pot?

  1. Water gets evaporated at the surface of the earthen pot.
  2. The earthen pot is porous.
  3. Environmental water vapour enters the pot through pores.
  4. The water oozes out through the pores in an earthen pot.

Answer: C) Environmental water vapour enters the pot through pores.

5. What is the unit of specific resistance?

  1. Farad
  2. Ampere
  3. Coulomb
  4. Ohm meter

Answer: D) Ohm meter

6. According to Mendeleev's Periodic Table, which elements’ properties matched up remarkably well with eka-silicon?

  1. Gallium
  2. Scandium
  3. Titanium
  4. Germanium

Answer: D) Germanium

7. Which essential amino acid enhances calcium absorption and also plays an important role in the formation of collagen?

  1. Arginine
  2. Tyrosine
  3. Lysine
  4. Histidine

Answer: C) Lysine

8. The record obtained by the measurement of earthquake is called a:

  1. seismograph
  2. seismogram
  3. seismology
  4. seismic wave

Answer: B) seismogram

9. Which of the following is associated with the retreating monsoon in India?

  1. Mahawat
  2. Kaal Baisakhi
  3. October heat
  4. Loo

Answer: C) October heat

10. What is the name of the inflammatory condition that causes cracks, crusting and scaling at the corners of the mouth due to vitamin B2 deficiency?

  1. Cheilosis
  2. Psoriasis
  3. Urticaria
  4. Atopic dermatitis

Answer: A) Cheilosis

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - Sports

1. In which of the following games is the ‘Baulk Line’ used?

  1. Kabaddi
  2. Badminton
  3. Tennis
  4. Kho-Kho

Answer: A) Kabaddi

2. Nirupama Sanjeev is a famous ______ player of India?

  1. Badminton
  2. Swimming
  3. Tennis
  4. Chess

Answer: C) Tennis

3. Who among the following famous badminton players won Singapore Open 2022?

  1. Aparna Popat
  2. Saina Nehwal
  3. Jwala Gutta
  4. PV Sindhu

Answer: D) PV Sindhu

4. India won the ICC Men Cricket World Cup for the first time in which of the following years?

  1. 1996
  2. 1992
  3. 1987
  4. 1983

Answer: D) 1983

5. In which year did India make its Olympic debut in hockey?

  1. 1936
  2. 1932
  3. 1924
  4. 1928

Answer: D) 1928

6. ‘Castling’ is related to which of the following sports?

  1. Table Tennis
  2. Billiards
  3. Tennis
  4. Chess

Answer: D) Chess

7. At the 36th National Games, Hashika Ramchandra won six gold medals in which of the following sports?

  1. Boxing
  2. Swimming
  3. Wrestling
  4. Badminton

Answer: B) Swimming

8. The first Indian Olympic Games was hosted by which of the following cities?

  1. Lahore
  2. Madras
  3. Bombay
  4. Allahabad

Answer: A) Lahore

9. At which Olympic games did Abhinav Bindra win the gold medal?

  1. Athens 2004
  2. Rio 2016
  3. Beijing 2008
  4. London 2012

Answer: C) Beijing 2008

10. In chess which of the following may move only diagonally?

  1. The Bishop
  2. The Knight
  3. The Queen
  4. The Rook

Answer: A) The Bishop

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - Environment

1. Which of the following is the most widely spread natural vegetation in India?

  1. Tropical Rain Forests
  2. Tropical Deciduous Forests
  3. Alpine Forests
  4. Thorn Forests

Answer: B) Tropical Deciduous Forests

2. Which type of vegetation is found in the Himalayan region above 3600 meters?

  1. Tropical Evergreen Forest
  2. Tropical Deciduous Forest
  3. Alpine Vegetation
  4. Thorn Forests

Answer: C) Alpine Vegetation

3. Which is the first national park established in India?

  1. Kaziranga National Park
  2. Jim Corbett National Park
  3. Kanha National Park
  4. Bandipur National Park

Answer: B) Jim Corbett National Park

4. Which of the following is an example of a decomposer in a food web?

  1. Eagle
  2. Snake
  3. Mushroom
  4. Rabbit

Answer: C) Mushroom

5. Which of the following is an aquatic mammal?

  1. Octopus
  2. Seahorse
  3. Shark
  4. Dolphin

Answer: D) Dolphin

6. Which aquatic animal breathes through gills?

  1. Whale
  2. Frog
  3. Fish
  4. Crocodile

Answer: C) Fish

7. What is the study of the interaction between organisms and their environment called?

  1. Ecology
  2. Biology
  3. Geology
  4. Zoology

Answer: A) Ecology

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of both mammals and birds?

  1. Viviparity
  2. Pigmented skin
  3. Pneumatic bones
  4. Warm blooded

Answer: D) Warm blooded

9. Which was the first tiger reserve established in India under Project Tiger?

  1. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
  2. Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve
  3. Kanha Tiger Reserve
  4. Ranthambore Tiger Reserve

Answer: B) Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve

10. Who publishes the India State of Forest Report (ISFR)?

  1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  2. Central Pollution Control Board
  3. Wildlife Institute of India
  4. Forest Survey of India

Answer: D) Forest Survey of India

11. What causes algal blooms to occur in water bodies?

  1. Increase in oxygen levels
  2. Decrease in sunlight
  3. Excess nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus
  4. High salinity in water

Answer: C) Excess nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - Public Administration

1. When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

  1. 26 January 1950
  2. 15 August 1947
  3. 9 December 1946
  4. 26 November 1949

Answer: C) 9 December 1946

2. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

  1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

3. Which part of Indian Constitution deals with the election of the Vice President?

  1. Part IV
  2. Part III
  3. Part VI
  4. Part V

Answer: D) Part V

4. The concept of ‘Independence of judiciary’ in the Indian Constitution is taken from the Constitution of:

  1. Ireland
  2. France
  3. The USA
  4. Britain

Answer: C) The USA

5. Who among the following was the shortest-serving Prime Minister of India?

  1. Chandra Shekhar
  2. Gulzarilal Nanda
  3. Charan Singh
  4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Answer: B) Gulzarilal Nanda

6. Which writ is issued by a high court or supreme court when a lower court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction?

  1. Prohibition
  2. Quo Warrant
  3. Habeas Corpus
  4. Certiorari

Answer: A) Prohibition

7. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about the ‘Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections’?

  1. Article 45
  2. Article 48
  3. Article 47
  4. Article 46

Answer: D) Article 46

8. A student, on his school assignment, is taking a session on how to make compost at home for using it at a park. Which fundamental duty is he performing?

  1. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
  2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
  3. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry
  4. To protect and improve the natural environment

Answer: D) To protect and improve the natural environment

9. Which of the following Articles and Parts of the Indian Constitution deal with the State Legislature?

  1. Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI
  2. Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI
  3. Articles 243 to 243-O in Part IX
  4. Articles 79 to 122 in Part V

Answer: B) Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI

10. Which of the following are enumerated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, from Articles 36 to 51?

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. The Union

Answer: C) Directive Principles of State Policy

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - Space

1. Which planet is known as the "Red Planet"?

  1. Venus
  2. Mars
  3. Mercury
  4. Saturn

Answer: B) Mars

2. Which is the closest star to Earth?

  1. Alpha Centauri
  2. Sirius
  3. Proxima Centauri
  4. The Sun

Answer: D) The Sun

3. Who was the first human to travel into space?

  1. Neil Armstrong
  2. Buzz Aldrin
  3. Yuri Gagarin
  4. Rakesh Sharma

Answer: C) Yuri Gagarin

4. Which Indian became the first to go to space?

  1. Kalpana Chawla
  2. Rakesh Sharma
  3. Sunita Williams
  4. Vikram Sarabhai

Answer: B) Rakesh Sharma

5. Which space agency launched the James Webb Space Telescope?

  1. ISRO
  2. ESA
  3. NASA
  4. Roscosmos

Answer: C) NASA

6. What protects Earth from harmful solar radiation?

  1. Ionosphere
  2. Atmosphere
  3. Ozone layer
  4. Magnetosphere

Answer: D) Magnetosphere

7. The dark patches on the Moon are called:

  1. Maria
  2. Highlands
  3. Craters
  4. Basins

Answer: A) Maria

8. Which planet is known for its beautiful rings?

  1. Uranus
  2. Neptune
  3. Saturn
  4. Jupiter

Answer: C) Saturn

9. What is a light year?

  1. Time taken by light to travel around the Earth
  2. Distance covered by light in one year
  3. A unit of time
  4. Distance between Earth and Moon

Answer: B) Distance covered by light in one year

10. What is the name of India’s first lunar mission?

  1. Vikram
  2. Chandrayaan-2
  3. Aryabhata
  4. Chandrayaan-1

Answer: D) Chandrayaan-1

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - International Organisations

1. Which international organization was established in 1945 to promote peace and cooperation among countries?

  1. NATO
  2. United Nations
  3. World Bank
  4. International Monetary Fund

Answer: B) United Nations

2. The headquarters of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) is located in which city?

  1. New York
  2. Paris
  3. The Hague
  4. Geneva

Answer: C) The Hague

3. BRICS is an association of five major emerging economies. Which of the following is NOT a BRICS member?

  1. Indonesia
  2. Brazil
  3. Russia
  4. South Africa

Answer: A) Indonesia

4. Which treaty aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons globally?

  1. START Treaty
  2. Kyoto Protocol
  3. Geneva Convention
  4. Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)

Answer: D) Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)

5. India is a member of which of the following organizations?

  1. G7
  2. NATO
  3. ASEAN
  4. G20

Answer: D) G20

6. The Quad Alliance consists of the USA, India, Japan, and which other country?

  1. Russia
  2. Australia
  3. South Korea
  4. China

Answer: B) Australia

7. Which of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations?

  1. International Court of Justice
  2. Economic and Social Council
  3. Human Rights Council
  4. Trusteeship Council

Answer: C) Human Rights Council

8. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established at which of the following conferences?

  1. Bretton Woods Conference
  2. Bandung Conference
  3. Havana Conference
  4. Geneva Convention

Answer: A) Bretton Woods Conference

9. Which of the following agencies publishes the World Development Report?

  1. IMF
  2. World Bank
  3. UNDP
  4. WTO

Answer: B) World Bank

10. The main purpose of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is to:

  1. Prevent nuclear war
  2. Conduct nuclear tests
  3. Enforce disarmament
  4. Promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy

Answer: D) Promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy

General Knowledge Questions and Answers - Economy

1. ______ is the provision of small credit to those who would have no other access to financial services.

  1. Microloan
  2. Microfinance
  3. Homeloan
  4. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana

Answer: B) Microfinance

2. Which of the following is an example of joint sector industry?

  1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
  2. Oil India Limited
  3. Tata Iron and Steel Company
  4. Steel Authority of India Limited

Answer: B) Oil India Limited

3. What was the main objective of the Second Green Revolution in India?

  1. Ensuring food security in the western states
  2. Promoting conventional agricultural practices
  3. Focusing on holistic development in agriculture
  4. Increasing the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides

Answer: C) Focusing on holistic development in agriculture

4. The Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP) for providing employment to people in drought prone areas was started by the Government of India during the _______.

  1. Fourth Five-Year Plan
  2. Sixth Five-Year Plan
  3. Third Five-Year Plan
  4. Seventh Five-Year Plan

Answer: A) Fourth Five-Year Plan

5. Which of the following is an example of major industrial region of India?

  1. Chota Nagpur region
  2. Bhojpur-Munger
  3. Jaipur- Ajmer
  4. Bilaspur-Korba

Answer: A) Chota Nagpur region

6. Which of the following institutions has contributed mainly in improving the economic status of the poor women in rural areas?

  1. Indira Awas Yojana
  2. Integrated Development Project
  3. Self-help Group
  4. Rural Health Scheme

Answer: C) Self-help Group

7. Which of the following is a difference between self-help groups (SHGs) and microfinance institutions (MFIs) in India?

  1. SHGs are non-profit organisations, while MFIs are for-profit organisations.
  2. SHGs provide only credit, while MFIs provide a range of financial services.
  3. SHGs are typically small, community-based organisations, while MFIs are larger and more formal institutions.
  4. SHGs rely on government subsidies for funding, while MFIs rely on commercial sources of funding.

Answer: C) SHGs are typically small, community-based organisations, while MFIs are larger and more formal institutions.

8. What were the main obstacles during the industrial development of India at the time of independence?

  1. Market for industrial produce
  2. Capital investment in industries
  3. Employment required for industries
  4. Land for industrial establishment

Answer: B) Capital investment in industries

9. Which of the following is a component of the SHG-bank linkage program in India?

  1. Microfinance institutions providing loans directly to SHGs
  2. Banks providing loans to individual members of SHGs
  3. Non-governmental organisations providing capacity building training to SHGs
  4. State government providing subsidies to SHGs for credit

Answer: B) Banks providing loans to individual members of SHGs

10. Which of the following documents provides a framework, rules and regulations for setting up public and private industries in India?

  1. Industrial policy
  2. Annual report of the trade union
  3. Company’s financial statement
  4. Union Budget

Answer: A) Industrial policy